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Poll Who would have won (Closed)
RJ Fischer 37 74%
A. Karpov 13 26%
- - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-20 18:34
Hi,

who would have won that match if it would  happened ?
Chess genius or chess machine .

Rgds
Hetman
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 19:57
We will never know. But at least we know who's fault this is.
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 16:18
But at least we know who's fault this is.

Fide :-) ?
Parent - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 16:23
Not this time. Euwe did everything possible (even too much) for the match to happen.
Parent - - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:10
Which match are you referring to?  Are you referring to the match as proposed by Fischer, i.e. first player to win 10 games, with draws not counting, or to FIDE's format, i.e. first to 12.5 points in a 24-game match?

I think that Fischer would have won the first by a large margin, and I think that Karpov would have won the second by a small margin, such as 12.5-11.5 or 13-11.
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:18
Fide accepted the 10 wins version but rejected the 9-9 draw goes to the champion.  Therefore the match would have been the first to win 10 games (not 24 games).  However, Karpov has stated several times both before and after the 1975 match fell apart that he would have lost to Fischer.  Almost every expert agrees with this.  Even Kasparov, who caught a lot of flack for suggesting that Karpov had good chances of winning in 1975 in My Great Predecessors has recently retracted this statement in the new edition of Euwe and Timman book on the match of the century.  A more reasonable question is who would have won in 1978.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 20:29

> Karpov has stated several times both before and after the 1975 match fell apart that he would have lost to Fischer.


Thats a flat out lie. Karpov never said this. Even if Karpov would believe this, he would have never said it.
Parent - - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:39
This was cited from a book or interview somewhere in the Fischer thread, though I cannot find it right now.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 20:41
It was not cited, it was claimed by Capa, just like here. Karpov never said this, like Kasparov never said that Fischer is the greatest (another one of Capa's bogus claims). Both Karpov's and Kasparov's egos would prevent anykind of these statements. It's just not true that they said it.
Parent - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:43
I'm pretty sure that the claim of Kasparov saying that is true--I think that I read that myself in that book when browsing it in the book store.
Parent - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:56
It's also in My Great Predecessors IV page 473.  Karpov states: "I stick to my opinion that in 1975 no one will be able to beat Fischer."
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:42
You seriously need to do some research before making such dogmatic statements and accusing someone of a lie.  My Great Predecessors and Russians vs Fischer both mention these quotes.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 20:43
And you need to stop worship Fischer (and posting lies).
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-20 20:48
Just to prove that you are wrong for the umpteenth time, here is one quote by Karpov:  "I adhere to my opinion that in 1975 no one will be able to beat Fischer (Russians vs Fischer pg. 395).  I will find the other later.  Do some research before making false claims.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 21:02 Edited 2009-06-20 21:05
You expect me and everyone else to believe that before their scheduled 1975 match Karpov said "I have no chance to defeat my opponent" ???

No professional would EVER said that no matter the odds.

P.S.: You are very naive if you consider everything that is writen in Kasparov's books as facts.
Parent - - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-20 21:25
Nonetheless, it shows that he isn't lying.  Also, the context here is that Karpov was saying this in retrospect, not before the match.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 07:04

> Karpov has stated several times both before and after the 1975 match fell apart that he would have lost to Fischer.


says he said it before the match. Also the word "will be" in the quote talks about future events, not about the past.
Parent - - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-21 12:27
I confirmed this quote last night, and it was "will be".  It was after the Interzonal, but before the Korchnoi-Karpov Candidates match.  The Candidates were interviewed by a Soviet newspaper, and Karpov made this quote in the interview.  Korchnoi also made a similar quote.  That's really not surprising, considering the amount by which Fischer was ahead of the rest of the world--something of similar magnitude would have been if Yasser Seirawan was to potentially have a WCC match against Kasparov in the 1990's and if nobody lived stronger than Yasser and weaker than Kasparov: such a quote would not have been surprising in the least bit.
Parent - - By Nelson Hernandez (Silver) [us] Date 2009-06-26 23:06
I accept your historical clarification.  But even if what you say were not the case it would be plausible that Karpov, not being a native English speaker, could have mistakenly used "will be able" (future progressive tense) instead of "would have been able" (conditional perfect progressive tense) when speaking of a past time.

It is a surprising quote; the Soviet chess establishment must have been mortified to read that from one of their rising stars.  They probably took him to the woodshed after he said that.
Parent - By turbojuice1122 (Gold) [us] Date 2009-06-27 12:33
It was definitely said ahead of time, as it was an interview before the 1974 candidates match (which turned into the world championship) between Korchnoi and Karpov, so they were speaking more in terms of "what next, after the match?"  It is also possible that Karpov, in particular, was being cautious and understating things--he obviously became more confident as time went on.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-20 20:38

> A more reasonable question is who would have won in 1978.


In case they would be playing their 1975 match to "first to 10 wins", they would be playing until 1978 :)
Parent - - By Not the real Kasparov (***) [au] Date 2009-06-21 03:13 Edited 2009-06-21 03:16
Karpov would have had chances in 1975, but against an in form Fischer it would have been difficult. Players that beat world's top 10 with scores of 6-0 in candidates matches would be extremely hard to beat.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 07:06
That was in 1971, the match was supposed to be in 1975. Things can change a lot in 4 years.

We will just never know.
Parent - - By Not the real Kasparov (***) [au] Date 2009-06-21 08:03
Your right, Fischer would have to be in form to beat Karpov in 1975, if that was the case i think he would win. He was inactive for 3 years so I guess he was a little afraid of the match.
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 16:26
He was inactive for 3 years so I guess he was a little afraid of the match.
Before the match of the century where he won 3:1 vs Petrosian he were not very active.
Before the revenge match vs Spassky RJF was inactive for 25 years (?)while Spassky was active.
RJ Fischer won that match played up to 10 wins.
So inactivity was not big problem for RJF.
In the book Russians vs Fischer there were the comment 'RJ is playing with previous strength'
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 16:30
By the way, what was the 1992 match all about? Why did he play with Spassky? If he wanted to prove something he could have played with Kasparov or at least his 1975 challenger - Karpov. Chosing Spassky makes no sence. Or was it all about the money?
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 16:34
I think there were gentlemen agreement between Spassky and Fischer after Reykjavik for revange match.
There were friends.
RJF was ready play vs Spassky next year in 1973 but SU federation did not accept that possibility.
So they filled that agreement later  and got cash.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 16:48
So that he could later also demand a rematch clause (besides the 9-9 clause)? :)
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 17:36
Rematch clause has been given to Karpov after the WCH title has been given to him ;-)
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 18:20
True. But at least he didn't say that once he becomes the champion he will seek to completely abolish champion's advantage.

Funny how the world champion title changes people's views.

While challenger Fischer denounced the champion's advantage and promised to abolish it. Once he became champion he imediatelly change his view and actually tried to increase the advantage with the 9-9 clause.

As challenger Kasparov denounced the rematch right, and said that draw odds were enough. When Kramnik defeated him, he wanted a rematch.

After defeating Kasparov, Kramnik said that rematches are the thing from the past, but when he lost his title he demanded a rematch (only that he didn't called it as such). Well, actually he demanded a "rematch" as a condition of his participation in Mexico. Only when FIDE granted this, did he confirm his participation in Mexico. He was smart enough to demand a rematch before he lost the title.
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 18:33
I do not know if that 9-9 clause was big advantage it is comparable with draw odds but it demands champion to win 9 games so it is less then draw odds in limited match.
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-21 18:46
It means that the challenger has to win by at least 10-8. Thats a two game advantage. In the old system it was enough for the challenger to win by 1 game margin.
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-21 23:51
In requesting that at 9-9 the champion retain his title, Fischer was merely asking for the same right that every champion has---draw rights.  In a match to 24 it is possible to tie at 12-12.  In a match to 10 wins, 9-9 would be a draw.  In the Capablanca/Alekhine match it was the first to 6 wins, but at 5-5 it would have been declared a draw.  In Russians vs Fischer there are several Soviets that state that Fischer had every right to make this request---that it was fair and just. 
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-22 12:04
Asking from the challenger to win by 10-8 or better is just not fair. In unlimited match there just can't be any draw odds.

Euwe proposed a compromise solution: unlimited match to 10 wins, but in case of 9 wins to 9 wins the match goes in 10 games overtime. In case overtime ends in 5-5 tie, the champion keeps the title. That way both was possible - unlimited match and draw odds for the champion.

Like always, Fischer rejected everything that wasn't exactly how he wanted.
Parent - By BB (****) [au] Date 2009-06-23 04:35

>Euwe proposed a compromise solution: unlimited match to 10 wins, but in case of 9 wins to 9 wins the match goes in 10 games overtime. In case overtime ends in 5-5 tie, the champion keeps the title. That way both was possible - unlimited match and draw odds for the champion.


I think this was also essentially the idea behind any possible Capablanca-Alekhine 5-5 agreement --- that match would be called off as "tied" (neither player wanted to lose such a close match to "luck"), but, there would immediately/soon be another match, limited to a smallish number of games (such as 20). In any case, I don't think Euwe's solution ever made it past the trial balloon stage (of course, if Fischer had been agreeable, then there would have been more impetus).
Parent - - By BB (****) [au] Date 2009-06-22 04:22

>I do not know if that 9-9 clause was big advantage it is comparable with draw odds but it demands champion to win 9 games so it is less then draw odds in limited match.


One cannot simply refer to mathematics to compute the "champion's edge" in an unlimited match. The champion can hold the title by:
*) Winning the requisite number of games
*) Not losing the requisite number of games, and the match gets called off (due to fatigue, impatience of sponsors, etc.)
The latter possibility is hard to measure in a precise mathematical sense.

Turning to various history, the FIDE votes in 1974 were:

Q. Should it be 10 wins, as per the WC, or 6 wins, as per the FIDE congress of 1972?
10 wins: 26, 6 wins: 24, Abstain: 12

Q. The length of the match being limited, what should the limit be?
36 games: 25, 30 games: 22, 50 games: 18, Abstain: 4

A. Now that the WC resigned, should we re-consider?
No: 35, Yes: 17, Abstain: 11

With question 1, in 1971, in part already due to negotiations with Fischer-ites (who wanted 10 wins, to go into in effect already for the 1972), the FIDE had changed the match system to be 6 wins (over the objections of the Russians) with there being no tie clause.

From Fischer's cablegram (of 21 June 1974, five days before the FIDE meeting), describing both the reason for 10 wins (rather than 6), and the tie clause:
Now I speak of a very important matter. Official World Championship occurs only once in three years. Temporary form, or team preparation, or luck should not be permitted to determine results. World Champion should be World's Best Player, and long match is necessary to reach a just result with nearly absolute certainty. For this reason I propose that match be won by first player to win ten games, with no limit on total number played. Provision for drawn match with score nine wins to nine with champion retaining title and prize fund split equally is consistent with longstanding tradition of small advantage for champion.

Having given "longstanding tradition of small advantage for champion" as the reason for the tie clause, he then continues:
Yet those who have long enjoyed this advantage now wish to abolish it. Propaganda emanating from a certain country has falsely implied that I am seeking unprecedented advantage. These critics say that it is unfair to require a two-point margin of ten wins to eight in order for a challenger to win a match, yet only in this way can champion's advantage be fairly preserved when there is no limit on total games. And critics deliberately overlook that champion also needs two-point margin in order to win match.

Having set down his conditions for "fairly preserv[ing]" the champion's advantage, he then turns to the historical record:
Mr. Cramer [the US rep to FIDE, also a rep of Fischer, and a rep of the USCF -- quite a trifecta] can demonstrate the historical record, but for example, Alekhine needed at least a margin of six wins to four to become World Champion, whereas Capablanca needed only five wins to retain his title, draws not counting.

The "historical record" here is a bit more fuzzy than it might seem: the "London rules" of 1922 (signed by all major competitors, except maybe Nimzovich) has as clause #1: The match to be one of six games up, drawn games not to count. This would seem to rebut Fischer's claim, though Capablanca had talked of a "drawn match" (to be followed by 20-game re-match) in correspondence in 1927, and it is unclear whether he was talking about a 5-5 result (about which Capablanca and Alekhine might have had a private agreement), or an abandonment. As one should expect, chess historian Edward Winter would be the expert on such matters:
http://www.chesshistory.com/winter/extra/capablancaalekhine1927.html
Parent - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-22 17:27
Thanks for details.
Calculating probability will be difficult.
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-22 20:36
Here are some examples from the 20th century of an unlimited match to 6 or 10 games where draw odds were given to the champion (5-5 or 9-9).  The next example is taken from "The Soviet Championships" by Bernard Cafferty and Mark Taimanov.  When Bogoljubow won the Soviet championship in 1924 he was challenged by Romanovsky, who had finished 2nd, for the title.  "The winner was to be the first to score 6 wins.  The first four draws were not to count in the score....If the score reached 5-5, Bogoljubow was to retain the title" (pg. 21).

In the 1910 championship match between Lasker and Schlechter, which was schedules for only 10 games (like nowadays :)), "...the challenger had to gain an advantage of 2 points" and if it ended in a 5 1/2-4 1/2 match in favor of Schlechter, it would be declared a draw (My Great Predecessors I pg. 173).

In 1911 Capablanca challenged Lasker and these were the champion's conditions: "the winner was to be the first to win 6 games, draws not counting, but with a limit of 30 games; after the 30th game the match was to terminate and the winner would be the player who had a lead of not less than two points, while with an advantage of one point the match would be considered drawn" (My Great Predecessors pg. 239).  However a decade later they played to the best of 24 games and Botvinnik preferred this format.

The conditions for the Levenfish and Botvinnik match for the title of USSR champion (1937) were:  "the winner would be the first to win 6 games, draws not counting, and with a score of 5-5 the champion, Levenfish, would retain his title" (My Great Predecessors II pg. 121).

Again, it has always been the champion's right to retain the title in the event of a draw.  In a limited match to 16, 24, or 30 games the match is drawn at 8-8, 12-12, or 15-15 respectively.  Also, the challenger must win one more game than the champion to win.  In an unlimited match the only fair draw if playing to 6 wins is 5-5, and the only fair draw if playing to 10 wins is 9-9.  Therefore, the challenger must have 2 more wins (this is inherent to the system).

Fischer is often criticized for insisting on the 9-9 draw clause.  There is no perfect system.  Fischer despised draws and thought the unlimited match, with draws not counting, would combat this.  Maybe he was right; maybe he was wrong.  For those who strongly feel that this 2 point handicap is too much should consider this in light of Karpov and the Soviets reintroducing the champion's right to a rematch---thereby the challenger is forced to defeat the champion 2 different times.  I ask in all fairness, which is the more difficult wall to climb?  I don't believe Fischer insisted on 10 wins because he was rusty or because he knew that Karpov had stamina issues and would fade as some have insinuated.  It was simply a matter of principle.  Already in 1963 Fischer had challenged Petrosian to a 10 game match with draws not counting (Profile of a Prodigy pg. 71).
Parent - - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-22 21:07 Edited 2009-06-22 21:14

> In the 1910 championship match between Lasker and Schlechter, which was schedules for only 10 games (like nowadays :-)), "...the challenger had to gain an advantage of 2 points" and if it ended in a 5 1/2-4 1/2 match in favor of Schlechter, it would be declared a draw (My Great Predecessors I pg. 173).


And again Kasparov states something as a fact, but in reality nobody knows what the conditions were. It might be true, but it also my not be true.

In my opinion there should be somekind of champions advanatage and in best of 24 format, a 12-12 draw odds were reasonable. Draw odds and rematch was not. With unlimited match, there just can't be any draw odds (2 wins advantage is just to much), so the rematch is almost only  option for champions advantage. In 1978, 1981 and 1984 Karpov had absolutely no advantage in the match itself, but of course he had a rematch right.
Parent - - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-22 21:24
Unless you have facts to the contrary, why waste our time with insinuating that none of us should quote Kasparov or anyone else.  The remark is ridiculous and very uneducated.  You will note that in my previous post I quote from 3 different authors, and Kasparov just happens to be one of them.  Your arguments might be more persuasive if you also quoted from chess books. :)
Parent - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-22 21:34
What facts to the contrary? There are no facts to contrary or in favour. Nobody knows exactly what the conditions of Lasker vs. Schlechter match actually were. You try reading something from actual historians, not just pseudo-historians like Kasparov.
Parent - By Roland Rösler (****) [de] Date 2009-06-23 00:18

>It might be true, but it also my not be true.


Maybe the opponents didn´t know it exactly for themselves. And so we saw one of the greatest games in wcc history until WWII!
Parent - - By BB (****) [au] Date 2009-06-23 07:35

>In the 1910 championship match between Lasker and Schlechter, which was schedules for only 10 games (like nowadays :-)), "...the challenger had to gain an advantage of 2 points" and if it ended in a 5 1/2-4 1/2 match in favor of Schlechter, it would be declared a draw (My Great Predecessors I pg. 173).


Chess historians disagree here. [And in any case, MGP is not a historical source :)]. Wikipedia page
My own opinion is that the 2-pt edge idea is a myth that has simply been copied from one source to another (Kasparov is well-known for his trumpeting of this idea, in conjunction with him being the only champion to defend via winning the final game [Seville 1987]). To the best of my knowledge, there is no primary evidence in favour it (usually, a "secret contract" is mentioned, though this is hypothetical -- I should think any such "secret contract" would be more likely to involve a re-match).

As usual, the man-on-the-spot is Winter (#4144), quoting Preiswerk, 10 days after the match ended (and thus the primary source, though still perhaps mistaken or misleading): A narrow victory by Schlechter would by no means have given him the world championship but, instead, it would have brought him a serious return match to be carried out irrespective of its financing. This may not have suited the two masters, who, after all, are also excellent businessmen. Buckley even wrote (in the American Chess Bulletin, at the time) that Lasker would still have been titular champion (in some sense) had Schlechter won all the games.

Additionally, Lasker's correspondence at the time (two days before the final game, written for the New York Evening Post) also suggests that Schlechter would gain the title by 1-0. The innuendo of Preiswerk seems to be that a 2-0 win by Schlechter would be more likely to obtain funding for a "true" match (the 1910 match was underfunded, which is one reason for its shortness). So it might be more proper to say Lasker really had a re-match clause here. [And to be pedantic, this is not an example "of an unlimited match to 6 or 10 games"].

>In 1911 Capablanca challenged Lasker and these were the champion's conditions: "the winner was to be the first to win 6 games, draws not counting, but with a limit of 30 games; after the 30th game the match was to terminate and the winner would be the player who had a lead of not less than two points, while with an advantage of one point the match would be considered drawn"


Capablanca's original challenge was of 10 games up. Lasker responded with 6 wins, or best score by at least 2 after 30 games. Thus, (and I don't have the original conditions in front of me), it seems that 6-5 would be a win, but 5-4 with 21 draws would not. This again is a bit different (and makes more sense to me) than 5-5 being a draw in an "unlimited" match. In any case, this was at an early stage in negotiation, not a final agreement. Also under dispute (besides number of wins and length of match) were: location (Lasker didn't want tropical Havana), copyright (Lasker wanted to retain the rights), and time limit (Lasker wanted 12 moves/hour, while Capablanca said 15 --- in fact, in The Chess Amateur, this is the only clause that is noted in their brief blurbs, with Capablanca saying that he would never play at such a time control).

>However a decade later they played to the best of 24 games


The 1921 Capablanca-Lasker match was 8 wins or 24 games (some sources say 30 games, though again Winter, citing the match book, seems more accurate). And Lasker had lesser interest herein, having "resigned" the title to Capablanca in 1920 (though this was not recognised by most).

>Here are some examples from the 20th century of an unlimited match to 6 or 10 games where draw odds were given to the champion (5-5 or 9-9).


The others listed (Bogoljubov-Romanovsky, Levenfish-Botvinnik) are not World Championships. In the former, Bogoljubov had 15/17 while Levenfish was 2nd with 12.5/17 -- for the latter, Levenfish won with 12.5/17, while Botvinnik did not play (finishing his dissertation). Romanovsky was probably lucky even to get a match (which he lost 5-1 -- plus Bogo won their game in the tournament). Krylenko organised the Botvinnik-Levenfish match (whether he "ordered" it to "punish" MB is a different issue), and the purported rules from Capablanca-Alekhine were largely copied.

>Again, it has always been the champion's right to retain the title in the event of a draw. [...] In an unlimited match the only fair draw if playing to 6 wins is 5-5, and the only fair draw if playing to 10 wins is 9-9.


The "wins-only" accounting has the feature that it can neatly cut out the "event of a draw" except for abandonment. I find the phrase "fair draw" in an unlimited match to be a misnomer.

>For those who strongly feel that this 2 point handicap is too much should consider this in light of Karpov and the Soviets reintroducing the champion's right to a rematch---thereby the challenger is forced to defeat the champion 2 different times.  I ask in all fairness, which is the more difficult wall to climb?


This is not exactly true. Firstly, the challenger becomes Champion after winning the first time (see Smyslov and Tal -- and Euwe, though there the re-match was freely granted). Furthermore, and perhaps a bit pedantic, this means that the challenger-now-Champion need only draw the second time around. Also, the question of whether the 2-point handicap is "too much" can be considered in a self-contained manner, and comparing it to a re-match clause seems to conflate the issue. [My personal contention is that the "rematch" clause does well when there are exactly two players who are admittedly in a separate class, but elsewise gives the Champion too large of an edge toward eventual retention. For instance, in the run-up to 1978, Euwe had suggested a re-match only in the case where the challenger had won by the minimal margin of 6-5. Also important with re-matches is the availability of funding.]

>Already in 1963 Fischer had challenged Petrosian to a 10 game match with draws not counting (Profile of a Prodigy pg. 71).


Notably missing from the challenge was a clause that would allow Petrosian to retain the title if the score of 9-9 was reached. Similarly, I don't think that Fischer mentioned such an idea when he proposed 10 wins back in 1971.
Parent - By ebutaljib (****) Date 2009-06-23 17:00
Exactly what I said - nobody knows. Kasparov is just talking baloney there, ant not only there. One should not take everything he writes for a fact.
Parent - By BB (****) [au] Date 2009-06-24 04:14

>The others listed (Bogoljubov-Romanovsky, Levenfish-Botvinnik) are not World Championships.


I might elucidate this a bit more: no matter what the result of these matches, both players would be in a tournament for the same title in a year or two. For this reason, I'm not sure that saying that: Levenfish "retained hist title" by 5-5 is notably different than saying that the match was a 5-5 draw.
Parent - - By Geomusic (*****) Date 2009-07-01 21:41 Edited 2009-07-01 21:45
I wonder what would have happened if Fischer never beat Spassky in 72? Would he have continued to try to become WC? Would Karpov play Spassky in the next cycle? If Karpov won the WC would there have been infact been a Fischer-Kasparov WC candidates fight? interesting to think about...
Parent - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-07-02 16:20
Fischer had not succeded in previous pretenders tournaments but had not finished the fight.
Parent - By Capa (***) [us] Date 2009-06-21 12:38 Edited 2009-06-21 13:37
Actually, the quote is from sometime after the 2nd half of 1973, after the Interzonal Tournament in Leningrad.
Parent - - By Miroslav Kvíčala (**) [cz] Date 2009-06-21 15:01
Karpov would win for sure. Fischer had absolutly no chance against "Soviet machine". He didin´t want to play because he knew that he will lose. At that time Karpov has a peak of his performace and it was almost impossible to beat him. everybody can replay their games as a proof :)
Parent - - By Hetman (*****) Date 2009-06-21 16:30
I am not sure. Karpov peak performance was later then 1975.
Petrosian was able to Beat Karpov that time so RJF would be able too.
Next Karpov matches vs Korchnoi were played on equal considering personal problems of Korchnoi - family in SU.
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